求 Sin 2021X 比上 sin x 在 0~2 分之派上的定积分。

Criado em: 17 de fevereiro de 2025

Respondido usando O3 Mini por Chat01

Pergunta

求 Sin 2021X 比上 sin x 在 0~2 分之派上的定积分。

Pensamento

Interpreting the query

The user seems to want to compute the definite integral of sin(2021x)sin(x)\frac{\sin(2021x)}{\sin(x)} from 0 to 2π2\frac{2\pi}{2}, but there's some uncertainty in the translation. "求" means "find," and "sin 2021X 比上 sin x" translates as sin(2021x)sin(x)\frac{\sin(2021x)}{\sin(x)}. The “0~2 分之派” likely means "from 0 to π\pi," as "2分之π" is a common notation for π2\frac{\pi}{2}. So, the calculation should be from 0 to π\pi.

Clarifying the integral range

The user’s question involves sin(2021x)sin(x)\frac{\sin(2021x)}{\sin(x)}, with a limit of integration from 0 to possibly π2\frac{\pi}{2} (since "2分之派" translates to π2\frac{\pi}{2}) or maybe 2π2\pi. There’s a known formula that 0πsin(mx)sin(x)dx=π\int_0^\pi \frac{\sin(mx)}{\sin(x)} dx = \pi when mm is odd, and the result is zero if mm is even. Based on this, if the interval is from 0 to π\pi, the result would be π\pi. If it's from 0 to 2π2\pi, the result would be 2π2\pi.

Evaluating the integral limits

The user is trying to evaluate an integral of sin(2021x)sinx\frac{\sin(2021x)}{\sin x}, and there’s some confusion about the interval. The phrase "2分之派" could mean π2\frac{\pi}{2}, so the interval might be from 0 to π2\frac{\pi}{2}. There's an identity for 0πsin((2n+1)x)sin(x)dx=π\int_0^\pi \frac{\sin((2n+1)x)}{\sin(x)} dx = \pi, and adjusting this for our specific case, it seems the integral from 0 to π2\frac{\pi}{2} will give π2\frac{\pi}{2}.

Reasoned for 19 seconds

Resposta

我们要求解积分

I=0π/2sin(2021x)sinxdx.I=\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{\sin(2021x)}{\sin x}\,dx.

注意到 20212021 是奇数,我们可以写成

2021=2n+1其中  n=1010.2021 = 2n+1\quad \text{其中}\; n=1010.

利用恒等式

sin((2n+1)x)sinx=1+2k=1ncos(2kx),\frac{\sin((2n+1)x)}{\sin x} = 1+2\sum_{k=1}^{n}\cos(2kx),

积分便转化为

I=0π/2[1+2k=11010cos(2kx)]dx.I=\int_0^{\pi/2}\left[1+2\sum_{k=1}^{1010}\cos(2kx)\right]dx.

11 的积分很简单:

0π/21dx=π2.\int_0^{\pi/2}1\,dx = \frac{\pi}{2}.

而对于每个 k1k\ge1,有

0π/2cos(2kx)dx=sin(2kx)2k0π/2=sin(kπ)2k=0,\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos(2kx)\,dx =\left.\frac{\sin(2kx)}{2k}\right|_{0}^{\pi/2} =\frac{\sin(k\pi)}{2k}=0,

因为 sin(kπ)=0\sin(k\pi)=0

因此,所有余弦项的积分均为零,从而

I=π2+2k=110100=π2.I=\frac{\pi}{2}+2\sum_{k=1}^{1010}0 = \frac{\pi}{2}.

故答案为 π2\boxed{\frac{\pi}{2}}.

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