Right Continuity of CDF
생성일: 2024년 10월 27일
답변에 사용된 모델 O1 Preview by Chat01
생성일: 2024년 10월 27일
답변에 사용된 모델 O1 Preview by Chat01
Please prove that cumulative distribution function is right-countious
To prove that a cumulative distribution function (CDF) is right-continuous at every point , we need to show that:
Proof:
Definition of CDF:
The cumulative distribution function of a random variable is defined as:
Properties of Probability Measures:
For any decreasing sequence of measurable sets such that , the probability satisfies:
This property follows from the continuity of probability measures from above.
Constructing a Decreasing Sequence:
Relating Events to the Sequence:
The events form a decreasing sequence of sets:
because .
As , the intersection of these sets approaches :
Applying the Continuity of Probability Measures:
Using the property from step 2:
Therefore:
Conclusion:
This shows that:
Therefore, is right-continuous at every point .
Note:
Therefore, we have proven that the cumulative distribution function is right-continuous at every point.
Answer: Because for every real x, F(x + h) decreases to F(x) as h↓0, the CDF F is right-continuous everywhere.
Can you use the same method to prove that when x->negative infinity, the cumulative funtion equals to 0
Yes, we can use a similar method to prove that the cumulative distribution function (CDF) satisfies:
Proof:
Definition of CDF:
The cumulative distribution function of a random variable is defined as:
Properties of Probability Measures:
The probability of the empty set is zero:
For any decreasing sequence of measurable sets such that , the probability satisfies:
Constructing a Decreasing Sequence:
Consider a sequence such that as . For example, let .
Define the events:
Since , the sequence is decreasing:
Limit of the Events:
The intersection of all is the empty set:
Applying the Continuity of Probability Measures:
Using the property from step 2:
Since :
Conclusion:
Therefore:
Therefore, using the same method, we have proven that the cumulative distribution function approaches 0 as approaches negative infinity.
Answer: Yes; using the same method, we can show that as x approaches negative infinity, F(x) approaches 0.